Make-up/Extra Credit Assignment Option #1
As Prof. Stearns noted in his video lecture on the Industrial Revolution, it is hard to know exactly what caused the Industrial Revolution to happen when it did, where it did. At the same time, we can see that certain factors had to be in place in order for the Industrial Revolution to occur.
Given what you have read in this course, and given the material in the video lectures, why
did the Industrial Revolution not occur in Europe in the Middle Ages? That is, what
contributing factors were in place, or what contributing developments had there been, by
1750, that were not present in, say, 1400? (Or, what was going on around 1400 that might
have hampered the development of mechanized industry?) Be sure to mention how those
factors contributed to the Industrial Revolution.
Make-Up/Extra Credit Assignment Option #2
Same as Option #1 above, but instead of the Middle Ages, discuss why the Industrial
Revolution did not occur during ancient Greek or Roman times.
Make-Up/Extra Credit Assignment Option #3
Same as Option #1 above, but instead of the Middle Ages, discuss why industrialization did
not take place in Russia and its possessions until the late 19th and early 20th centuries.
(This question will become easier to answer after we have studied Russia.)
Make-Up/Extra Credit Assignment Option #4
While the Industrial Revolution spurred the "New Imperialism" of the late 19th and early 20th centuries, it is also true that the new wave of colonization and trade fed the Industrial Revolution (contributing to what is sometimes called a "second Industrial Revolution" or "second phase of industrialization," based on new inventions, new uses of resources, and so on). One often hears the phrases "developed nations" and "underdeveloped nations," referring to levels of industrialization. A dictionary definition of "industrially underdeveloped nation" is "a nation that fails to realize a potential economic level of industrial production and standard of living because of lack of capital for [use] of natural resources, shortage of technically trained personnel, low levels of medical care, or cultural resistance." ('Capital' here means money or assets available to use in investments.) An "industrially developed nation" would then be one that is realizing its potential for industrial production. (I say nothing here about when and whether it is worth realizing one's industrial potential, or about what considerations might need to be weighed in the balance to determine this.)
Thus imperialism and industrialization together made the difference between the
industrially "developed" nations and the industrially "undeveloped" nations. All of the
industrially developed nations engaged in some sort of colonization or taking over of
foreign territories. It is sometimes said that imperialism and industrialization made some
nations into industrially "developed" nations and made others into industrially
"underdeveloped" nations. It is probably clear how imperialism and industrialization
could make a nation into an industrially developed one. But how could imperialism and
industrialization make other nations "underdeveloped"? Explain. (Hint: The nations that
are most often considered "underdeveloped" today were very often colonies or possessions
of other countries in the late 19th and early 20th centuries.)
~~~~~~~~More to come~~~~~~~~
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